Geometric Placement Papers 2015 - Interview Questions

Placement papers of Geometric 2015. Learn and practice the placement papers and interview questions answers of Geometric and find out how much you score before you appear for your next interview and written test.

Geometric Placement Papers - Interview Questions:

Question 1
In each of the following questions, there is a certain relationship between two given words on one side of : : and one word is given on another side of : :while another word is to be found from the given alternatives, having the same relation with this word as the words of the given pair bear. Choose the correct alternative. Oxygen : Burn : : Carbon dioxide : ?


A. Isolate
B. Foam
C. Extinguish
D. Explode


Ans. C


Question 2
Grain : Stock : : Stick : ?


A. Heap
B. Bundle
C. Collection
D. String

Ans. B


Question 3
Planet : Orbit : : Projectile : ?


A. Trajectory
B. Track
C. Milky way
D. Path



Ans. A



Question 4
Genuine : Authentic : : Mirage : ?


A. Image
B. Transpiration
C. Reflection
D. Illusion



Ans. D


Question 5
Illiteracy : Education : : Flood : ?


A. Rain
B. Bridge
C. Dam
D. River



Ans. C


Question 6
Each of the following sentences has been divided into four parts. There is an error in one of the parts. Point out the part which has an error . A) I was astonished by the highly exciting tricks / B) the acrobat displayed on the rope / C) at great risk of like /D) at such an advanced age.

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D



Ans. A


Question 7
A) We, who are fortunate enough / B) to have lived in the present century, / C) hardly realize how our ancestors suffered / D) from the belief in the existence of evil spirits.

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D


Ans. B


Question 8
A) Vivek is / B) one year junior, / C) than Madav / D) in our office


A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D



Ans. C


Question 9
A) The detective says that/ B) there is no chance for, / C) finding the person,/ D) who wrote these letters.


A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D



Ans. B



Question 10
A) We bought five dozens pencils from a shop,/ B) but on opening in the packet at home / C) we found five pencils short, / D) but the shopkeeper did not accept the responsibility of the shortage.

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

Ans. A


You can also see: Citi Placement Papers

Question 11
In each of the following questions, a paragraph or a sentence has been broken up into different parts. The parts have been scrambled and numbered as given below. Choose the correct order of these parts from the given alternatives

A. The potential exchanges between the officials of IBBF and the Maharashtra Body-Building Association has all the trappings of a drama we are accustomed to.
B. In the case of sportspersons, there is room for some sympathy, but the apathy of the administrators, which has even led to sanctions from international bodies, is unpardonable.
C. A case in the point is the hefty penalty of US $10,000 slapped on the Indian Body-Building Federation for not fulfilling its commitment for holding the Asian Championships in Mumbai in October.
D. It is a matter of deep regret and concern that the sports administrators often cause more harm to the image of the country than sportsmen and sportswomen do through their dismal performances.

A. CABD
B. DBCA
C. DABC
D. CDBA


Ans. B


Question 12
A. Its cargo consisted of 38 sacks of spices and Magellan himself had been hacked to pieces on the beach of Mactan in the Phillipines

B. So contrary to popular beliefe it was the crew of the Victoria who were the first men to have sailed around the globe
C. In spetembre 1522 Victoria , the sole survivor of the Armada, limped into the spanish port San Lucar , manned by a skeleton crew of 15, so weak they could not talk
D. In septembre 1519 the Armada de Molucca of five ships and 250 sailors has set out from San lucar de Barrameda under the command of Fernando de Magellan E. It was to sail to the spice islands of the Malayan Archipelago where they were to excahnge an assortemnt of bells , mirrors , and scissors for cinnamon and cloves.


A. DECAB
B. AEDCB
C. CDEAB
D. DEABC



Ans. A


Question 13
A. The situations in which violence occurs and the nature of that violence tends to be clearly defined at least in theory, as in the proverbial Irishman’s question: ”˜Is this a private fight or can anyone join in?’

B. So the actual risk to outsiders, though no doubt higher than our societies, is calculable.
C. Probably the only uncontrolled applications of force are those of social superiors to social inferiors and even here there are probably some rules.
D. However binding the obligation to kill, members of feuding families engaged in mutual massacre will be genuinely appalled if by some mischance a bystander or outsider is killed.


A. DABC
B. ACDB
C. CBAD
D. DBAC


Ans. A


Question 14
A. What came out was very large garland made out of currency notes.

B. The unsuspecting governor opened the box in full view of the gathering
C. When the RBI governor came to inaugrate the new printing press , the local unit of the BJP handed him a gift wrapped box
D. There was a twist - the notes were all as tattered as notes could get


A. DACB
B. CABD
C. CBAD
D. DCAB


Ans. C


Question 15
A. But in the industrial era destroying the enemy’s productive capacity means bombing the factories which are located in the cities.

B. So in the agrarian era, if you need to destroy the enemy’s productive capacity, what you want to do is bum his fields, or if you’re really vicious, salt them.
C. Now in the information era, destroying the enemy’s productive capacity means destroying the information infrastructure. D. How do you do battle with your enemy? E. The idea is to destroy the enemy’s productive capacity, and depending upon the economic foundation, that productive capacity is different in each case. F. With regard to defence, the purpose of the military is to defend the nation and be prepared to do battle with its enemy.


A. FDEBAC
B. FCABED
C. DEBACF
D. DFEBAC


Ans. A


Question 16
The passage given below is followed by a set of five questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

To summarize the Classic Maya collapse, we can tentatively identify five strands. I acknowledge, however, that Maya archaeologists still disagree vigorously among themselves—in part, because the different strands evidently varied in importance among different parts of the Maya realm; because detailed archaeological studies are available for only some Maya sites; and because it remains puzzling why most of the Maya heartland remained nearly empty of population and failed to recover after the collapse and after re-growth of forests.
With those caveats, it appears to me that one strand consisted of population growth outstripping available resources: a dilemma similar to the one foreseen by Thomas Malthus in 1798 and being played out today in Rwanda , Haiti , and elsewhere. As the archaeologist David Webster succinctly puts it, “Too many farmers grew too many crops on too much of the landscape.” Compounding that mismatch between population and resources was the second strand: the effects of deforestation and hillside erosion, which caused a decrease in the amount of useable farmland at a time when more rather than less farmland was needed, and possibly exacerbated by an anthropogenic drought resulting from deforestation, by soil nutrient depletion and other soil problems, and by the struggle to prevent bracken ferns from overrunning the fields.
The third strand consisted of increased fighting, as more and more people fought over fewer resources. Maya warfare, already endemic, peaked just before the collapse. That is not surprising when one reflects that at least 5,000,000 people, perhaps many more, were crammed into an area smaller than the state of Colorado (104,000 square miles). That warfare would have decreased further the amount of land available for agriculture, by creating no-man’s lands between principalities where it was now unsafe to farm. Bringing matters to a head was the strand of climate change. The drought at the time of the Classic collapse was not the first drought that the Maya had lived through, but it was the most severe. At the time of previous droughts, there were still uninhabited parts of the Maya landscape, and people at a site affected by drought could save themselves by moving to another site. However, by the time of the Classic collapse the landscape was now full, there was no useful unoccupied land in the vicinity on which to begin anew, and the whole population could not be accommodated in the few areas that continued to have reliable water supplies.
As our fifth strand, we have to wonder why the kings and nobles failed to recognize and solve these seemingly obvious problems undermining their society. Their attention was evidently focused on their short-term concerns of enriching themselves, waging wars, erecting monuments, competing with each other, and extracting enough food from the peasants to support all those activities. Like most leaders throughout human history, the Maya kings and nobles did not heed long-term problems, in so far as they perceived them.
Finally, while we still have some other past societies to consider in this book before we switch our attention to the modern world, we must already be struck by some parallels between the Maya and the past societies. As on Easter Island, Mangareva, and among the Anasazi, Maya environmental and population problems led to increasing warfare and civil strife. As on Easter Island and at Chaco Canyon, Maya peak population numbers were followed swiftly by political and social collapse. Paralleling the eventual extension of agriculture from Easter Island’s coastal lowlands to its uplands, and from the Mimbres floodplain to the hills, Copan’s inhabitants also expanded from the floodplain to the more fragile hill slopes, leaving them with a larger population to feed when the agricultural boom in the hills went bust. Like Easter Island chiefs erecting ever larger statues, eventually crowned by pukao, and like Anasazi elite treating themselves to necklaces of 2,000 turquoise beads, Maya kings sought to outdo each other with more and more impressive temples, covered with thicker and thicker plaster— reminiscent in turn of the extravagant conspicuous consumption by modern American CEOs. The passivity of Easter chiefs and Maya kings in the face of the real big threats to their societies completes our list of disquieting parallels.

According to the passage, which of the following best represents the factor that has been cited by the author in the context of Rwanda and Haiti?

A. Various ethnic groups competing for land and other resources.
B. Various ethnic groups competing for limited land resources
C. Various ethnic groups fighting wit each other.
D. Various ethnic groups competing for political power.

Ans. B



Question 17
By an anthropogenic drought, the author means


A. A drought caused by lack of rains.
B. A drought caused due to deforestation.
C. A drought caused by failure to prevent bracken ferns from overrunning the fields.
D. A drought caused by actions of human beings.


Ans. D


Question 18
According to the passage, the drought at the time of Maya collapse had a different impact compared to the droughts earlier because


A. The Maya kings continue to be extravagant when common people were suffering
B. It happened at the time of collapse of leadership among Mayas.
C. It happened when the Maya population had occupied all available land suited for agriculture
D. It was followed by internecine warfare among Mayans


Ans. C


Question 19
According to the author, why is it difficult to explain the reasons for Maya collapse?


A. Copan inhabitants destroyed all records of that period
B. The constant deforestation and hillside erosion have wiped out all traces of the Maya kingdom.
C. Archaeological sites of Mayas do not provide any consistent evidence.
D. It has not been possible to ascertain which of the factors best explains as to why the Maya civilization collapsed.



Ans. D

Question 20
Which factor has not been cited as one of the factors causing the collapse of Maya society?


A. Environmental degradation due to excess population
B. Social collapse due to excess population.
C. Increased warfare among Maya people
D. Climate change.

Ans. C

You can also see: Freescale Placement Papers

Question 21
Pick out from the words, given below each sentence, the word which would complete the sentence correctly and meaningfully. Unhygienic circumstances..................health problems.


A. give rise to
B. bring in to existence
C. call for
D. replace


Ans. A


Question 22
If she were chosen for the job, she..........a good secretary.

A. will make
B. can make
C. would make
D. would have made


Ans. C


Question 23
Every government servant is finding it necessary to supplement his............... by doing something extra.


A. earnings
B. profits
C. remuneration
D. income


Ans. D

Question 24
Didn't you go to the restaurant yesterday...........?


A. No I did'nt
B. Yes I didn't
C. No, I did
D. will, yes.


Ans. A


Question 25
The Chernobil tragedy had taken place about four years.............


A. past
B. ago
C. before
D. since



Ans. B



Question 26
In each of the following questions, out of the given alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word. Abolish


A. end
B. minimize
C. prevent
D. denounce



Ans. A


Question 27
make up


A. invent
B. prepare
C. replace
D. complete


Ans. D


Question 28
dispatched


A. taken by force
B. sent
C. ordered to go
D. expelled


Ans. B

Question 29
ARDUOUS


A. Short
B. Difficult
C. Easy
D. Expensive



Ans. B


Question 30
ABODE

A. Family
B. Farm
C. Car
D. Home


Ans. D

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Fidelity Placement Papers 2015 - Interview Questions

Placement papers of Fidelity 2015. Learn and practice the placement papers and interview questions answers of Fidelity and find out how much you score before you appear for your next interview and written test.

Fidelity Placement Papers - Interview Questions:

Question 1
The average of all odd numbers up to 100 is:


A. 50
B. 60
C. 40
D. 55

Ans. A

Explanation:
1, 2, 3… n If n is odd, the formula is (n+1)/2 th term The average of all odd numbers up to 100 is 1+3+5+7+9+…+99 Therefore here n = 99 (99 + 1) / 2 = 100/2 = 50

Question 2
How many words of 4 consonants and 3 vowels can be made from 12 consonants and 4 vowels, if all the letters are different?


A. 16C7 * 7!
B. 12C4 * 4C3 * 7!
C. 12C3 * 4C4
D. 12C4 * 4C3

Ans. B

Explanation:
4 consonants out of 12 can be selected in 12C4 ways. 3 vowels can be selected in 4C3 ways. Therefore, total number of groups each containing 4 consonants and 3 vowels = 12C4 * 4C3 each group contains 7 letters, which can be arranging in 7! ways. Therefore required number of words = 124 * 4C3 * 7!

Question 3
The ratio of boys to girls in a class is 5: 3. The class has 16 more boys than girls. How many girls are there in the class?


A. 16
B. 6
C. 24
D. 64


Ans. C

Explanation:
Let the number of boys in the class be 5k. And the number of girls in the class is 3k. The class has 16 more boys. i.e., the difference between the number of boys and girls is 16 i.e., 5k - 3k = 16 2k = 16 so, k = 8. Number of girls = 3k = 2 * 8 = 24.

Question 4
The average of 7 consecutive numbers is 33. The largest of these numbers is:

A. 30
B. 80
C. 57
D. 36


Ans. D

Explanation:
Basic Formula: Let the numbers x, x+1, x+2, x+3, x+4, x+5, x+6 Answer with Explanation: Given ( x +x+1+ x+2+ x+3+ x+4+ x+5+ x+6) /7 = 33 7x +21/7 = 33 7x +21 = 33x7 7x + 21 = 231 7x = 231 – 21 = 210 X = 210/7 = 30. There for the largest number is x +6 = 30+6 = 36.


Question 5
Kiran had 85 currency notes in all, some of which were of Rs.100 denomination and the remaining of Rs.50 denomination the total amount of all these currency note was Rs.5000. How much amount did she have in the denomination of Rs.50?


A. Rs. 3000
B. Rs. 3500
C. Rs.3200
D. Rs. 3100

Ans. B

Explanation:
Let the number of fifty rupee notes be x Then, number of 100 rupee notes = (85-x) 50x + 100(85-x) = 5000 x + 2(85-x) = 100 x=70 So, required amount=Rs. (50*70) = Rs. 3500

Question 6
A man is 24 years older than his son.  In two years, his age will be twice the age of his son. The present age of his son is:


A. 14 years
B. 18 years
C. 20 years
D. 22 years


Ans. D

Explanation:
Let the son's present age be x years. Then, man's present age = (x + 24) years. (x + 24) + 2 = 2(x + 2) x + 26 = 2x + 4 x = 22.

Question 7
A zookeeper counted the heads of the animals in a zoo and found it to be 80. When he counted the legs of the animals he found it to be 260. If the zoo had either pigeons or horses, how many horses were there in the zoo?


A. 40
B. 30
C. 50
D. 60


Ans. C

Explanation:
Let the number of horses = x Then the number of pigeons = 80 – x. Each pigeon has 2 legs and each horse has 4 legs. Therefore, total number of legs = 4x + 2(80-x) = 260 4x + 160 – 2x = 260 2x = 100 x = 50

Question 8
How many kgs of Basmati rice costing Rs.42/kg should a shopkeeper mix with 25 kgs of ordinary rice costing Rs.24 per kg so that he makes a profit of 25% on selling the mixture at Rs.40/kg?

A. 20 kgs
B. 12.5 kgs
C. 16 kgs
D. 200 kgs


Ans. A

Explanation:
Let the amount of Basmati rice being mixed be x kgs. As the trader makes 25% profit by selling the mixture at Rs.40/kg, his cost /kg of the mixture = Rs.32/kg. i.e. (x * 42) + (25 * 24) = 32 (x + 25) 42x + 600 = 32x + 800 10x = 200 or x = 20 kgs

Question 9
Which is greater 2^300 or 3^200?

A. 2^300
B. 3^200
C. Both are equal
D. Both are equal


Ans. B

Explanation:
2300 = (23)100 = 8100 3200 = (32)100 = 9100 and since 9 > 8, 3200 is greater than 2300 3^200 > 2^300.

Question 10
The average age of a family of 5 members is 20 years. If the age of the youngest member be 10 years then what was the average age of the family at the time of the birth of the youngest member?

A. 13.5
B. 14
C. 15
D. 12.5

Ans. D

Explanation:
At present the total age of the family = 5 * 20 = 100 the total age of the family at the time of the birth of the youngest member = [100-10-(10*4)] = 50 Therefore, average age of the family at the time of birth of the youngest member = 50/4 = 12.5


You can also see: Geometric Placement Papers

Question 11
Study the following information and answer the questions based on it: A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting on a wall and all of them are facing east. C is on the immediate right of D. B is at an extreme end and has E as his neighbor. G is between E and F. D is sitting third from the south end. Who is sitting to the right of E?


A. A
B. C
C. D
D. F
E. None of these


Ans. E

Explanation:
C is to the right of D. D is third from south. So, B will be at the extreme end from north because it should have E as its neighbour. G is between E and F. SO, the sequence is B-> E-> G-> F-> D-> C-> A-> G is sitting to the right of E.

Question 12
Name the person who should change places with C such that he gets the third place from the north end?

A. E
B. F
C. C
D. G

Ans. D

Explanation:
G should change place with C to make it third from north.

Question 13
Which of the following pairs of people are sitting at the extreme ends?

A. AB
B. AE
C. CB
D. FB


Ans. A

Explanation:
A and B are sitting at the extreme ends.


Question 14
Who is sitting to the right of A?


A. B
B. C
C. D
D. F
E. None of these


Ans. E

Explanation:
We know that sitting arrangement as follows: B-> E-> G-> F-> D-> C-> A-> G And G is sitting right of A. So, answer is "None of these"

Question 15
Immediately between which of the following pairs of people is D sitting?

A. A C
B. A F
C. C E
D. C F


Ans. D

Explanation:
D is sitting between C and F.


Question 16
Study the following information and answer the questions based on it: M,N,O,P,Q,R,S,T,U,V,W are 11 persons in a team. O is their captain who makes them sit in a row. P and R sit together and so do V and W. whereas there are exactly four seats in between these pairs. T and U sit together with T to the immediate right of S, who is next to Q. M and N sit in the same order at one extreme with no one to the left of P. Who sits at fourth place?


A. S
B. T
C. U
D. W

Ans. A

Explanation:
From the given information sitting arrangement as follows: P R Q S T U V W O M N And S will be sitting in fourth position.

Question 17
How many persons sit in between S and N?

A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. Cannot be determined


Ans. C

Explanation:
From sitting arrangement "P R Q S T U V W O M N" their are six people between S and N.


Question 18
How many ways of arrangements are possible?


A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4


Ans. A

Explanation:
Possible combination of sitting arrangement as follows: P R Q S T U V W O M N

Question 19
Who sits at last but one place?


A. R
B. M
C. O
D. Cannot be determined


Ans. B

 Explanation:
Possible sitting arrangement as follows: " P R Q S T U V W O M N" And M is last but one person.

Question 20
Study the following information and answer the questions based on it: Joe, Larry, Ned, Mary, Paul, Willy, Crystal, Albert, Bob, Frank, Ellen, and Rick all live in the same 6-floor building. There are 2 apartments per floor. No more than 2 persons live in any apartment. Some apartments may be empty. 1. Larry and his roommate live 2 floors above Albert and his roommate Crystal. 2. Joe lives alone, 3 floors below Willy and 2 floors below Ellen. 3. Mary lives one floor below Albert and Crystal 4. Ned lives three floors above the floor on which Bob and Frank have single apartments 5. Rick and Paul live in single apartments, 2 floors below Mary   Which of the following lists the persons named in the correct order, going from the bottom floor to the top?


A. Rick, Bob, Mary, Albert, Larry, Ned
B. Rick, Frank, Ned, Ellen, Larry, Crystal
C. Paul, Bob, Joe, Crystal, Ned, Larry
D. Larry, Ellen, Albert, Mary, Frank, Rick


Ans. C


You can also see: Citi Placement Papers

Question 21
Which of the following pairs must live on the same floor? I.    Ned, Ellen II.   Joe, Mary III.  Albert, Larry


A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only


Ans. C

Question 22
An empty apartment or empty apartments may be found on the


A. second floor only
B. fourth floor only
C. fifth floor only
D. fourth or sixth floor or both



Ans. D

Question 23
Dorothy lives with a roommate. Her roommate could be any of the following EXCEPT


A. Willy
B. Mary
C. Ned
D. Ellen


Ans. A

Explanation:
As we know that only two people can live in a apartment and Larry & Willy are roommates. So, Dorothy cannot be Willy's roommate.

Question 24
Joe arranges to move into an apartment two floors down, whose occupant moves into an apartment one floor up. The occupant of this apartment moves into one three floors up, whose occupant takes Joe's old apartment. The new occupant of Joe's old apartment is


A. Bob or Frank
B. Ned or Ellen
C. Mary
D. Rick



Ans. B

Explanation:
As Joe moves from 3rd floor to first floor, Rick or Paul from first floor moves to the 2nd floor. Bob or Frank from 2nd floor moves to 5th floor. So, Ellen or Ned from 5th floor occupies the Joe's old apartment.

Question 25
Larry's roommate, assuming that he or she is one of the persons mentioned, is


A. Ellen
B. Willy
C. Mary
D. Ned


Ans. B

Question 26
What will be the output of the program?

                void main()

                {

                                int i=5,j=10;

                                i=i&=i&=j&&10+2;

                                printf("%d %d",i,j);

                }

A. 5 10
B. 1 10
C. 10 1
D. Compiler Error


Ans. B

Question 27
What will be the output of the program?

   void main( )

{

    int i=4, j=8;

    printf("%d, %d, %d\n", i|j&j|i, i|j&j|i, i^j);

}


A. 12, 12, 12
B. 112, 1, 12
C. 32, 1, 12
D. -64, 1, 12


Ans. A

Question 28
What will be the output of the program?

void main() {

    short int i = 0;

    for(i<=5 && i>=-1; ++i; i>0)

     printf("%u,", i);

}


A. 1 ... 65535
B. Expression syntax error
C. No output
D. 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5



Ans. A

Explanation:
for(i<=5 && i>=-1; ++i; i>0) so expression i<=5 && i>=-1 initializes for loop. In for( i <= 5 && i >= -1; ++i; i>0) expression i<=5 && i>=-1 evaluates to one. Loop condition always get evaluated to true. Also at this point it increases i by one. An increment_expression i>0 has no effect on value of i.so for loop get executed till the limit of integer (ie. 65535)

Question 29
What will be the output of the program?

void main( ) {

    int i=-3, j=2, k=0, m;

    m = ++i && ++j && ++k;

    printf("%d, %d, %d, %d\n", i, j, k, m);

  }
A. -2, 3, 1, 1
B. 2, 3, 1, 2
C. 1, 2, 3, 1
D. 3, 3, 1, 2




Ans. A

Explanation:
m = ++i && ++j && ++k; becomes m = -2 && 3 && 1; becomes m = TRUE && TRUE; Hence this statement becomes TRUE. So it returns '1'(one). Hence m=1. printf("%d, %d, %d, %d\n", i, j, k, m); In the previous step the value of i,j,k are increemented by '1'(one). Hence the output is "-2, 3, 1, 1".

Question 30
What will be the output of the program?

void main() {

    int i, a[] = {2, 4, 6, 8, 10};

    change(a, 5);

    for(i=0; i<=4; i++)

        printf("%d, ", a[i]);

 }

change(int *b, int n)

{

    int i;

    for(i=0; i

A. 7, 9, 11, 13, 15
B. 2, 15, 6, 8, 10
C. 2 4 6 8 10
D. 3, 1, -1, -3, -5

Ans. B

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ICICI Bank Placement Papers 2015 - Interview Questions

Placement papers of ICICI Bank 2015. Learn and practice the placement papers and interview questions answers of ICICI and find out how much you score before you appear for your next interview and written test.

ICICI Bank Placement Papers - Interview Questions:

Question 1
Which of the following is the product of data processing ?


A. information
B. data
C. software program
D. system

Ans. A

Question 2
The process of putting data into a storage location is called


A. reading
B. writing
C. controlling
D. hand shaking

Ans. B


Question 3
The process of copying data from a memory location is called


A. reading
B. writing
C. controlling
D. booting

Ans. A

Question 4
A list of instructions used by a computer is called


A. program
B. CPU
C. text
D. output

Ans. A

Question 5
The application layer of the OSI model is the


A. seventh layer
B. sixth layer
C. fifth layer
D. fourth layer


Ans. A

Question 6
Working of the WAN generally involves


A. Satellite
B. frame delay
C. ATM
D. user agent

Ans. A

Question 7
Which of the following technique provides dedicated communication channel between two stations.


A. switch network
B. circuit switching
C. packet switching
D. none of these


Ans. B


Question 8
End-to-end conncectivity is provided from host-to-host in


A. network layer
B. session layer
C. data link layer
D. transport layer

Ans. D

Question 9
Base band is


A. transmission of signals without modulation
B. a signal all of whose energy is contained within a finite frequency range
C. the simultaneous transmission of data to a number of stations
D. All of the above

Ans. A

Question 10
The simultaneous transmission of data to a number of stations is known as

A. broad cast
B. bandwidth
C. Aloha
D. analog transmission


Ans. A

You can also see: Fidelity Placement Papers

Question 11
The communication mode that supports data in both directions

A. simplex
B. half duplex
C. duplex
D. multiplex

Ans. B

Question 12
Modulation is the process of


A. sending a file from one computer to another computer
B. converting digital signals to analog signals
C. converting analog signals to digital signals
D. echoing every character that is received

Ans. B


Question 13
A distributed network configuration in which all data/information pass through a central computer is


A. bus network
B. star network
C. duplex
D. multiplex

Ans. D

Question 14
To connect a computer with a device in the same room, you might be likely to use


A. a coaxial cable
B. a dedicated time
C. a ground station
D. All of the above


Ans. A


Question 15
Administrative supervision of database activities is the responsibility of the
A. data base administrator
B. DP Manager
C. DB Manager
D. VP-DP administrator

Ans. A

Question 16
Which of the following component of a computer system is the most important to a data base management system ?


A. mouse
B. high resolution video display
C. printer
D. high speed, large capacity disk

Ans. D

Question 17
What is the ser ious pr oblem(s) of file management systems ?


A. data redundancy
B. difficult to update
C. program dependence
D. All of the above

Ans. D

Question 18
Which of the following contains complete record of all activity that affected the contents of a database during a certain period of time ?


A. master file
B. transaction file
C. report
D. query file

Ans. B


Question 19
In a database, related fields are grouped to form


A. record
B. file
C. bank
D. field group

Ans. A


Question 20
A table consists of
A. fields and columns
B. rows and columns
C. rows and cells
D. None of these

Ans. B


You can also see: Geometric Placement Papers

Question 21
The purpose of an index is to provide ........... to the file it is indexing


A. strorage area
B. access path
C. name
D. number

Ans. B


Question 22
The database environment has all of the following components execpt

A. users
B. separate files
C. database
D. database adinistrator

Ans. B

Question 23
When changes occur in a data item, if every file which contains that field should not be updated then, it leads to


A. data redundancy
B. data inconsistancy
C. data security
D. data loss

Ans. B


Question 24
Which of the following is an advantage of the database approach ?


A. elimination of data redundancy
B. ability to associate related data
C. increased security
D. All of the above


Ans. D

Question 25
When the same data field is stored more than once in a file, then it leads to


A. data redundancy
B. data inconsistancy
C. data dependancy
D. data independancy

Ans. A

Question 26
Data security threats include


A. privacy invasion
B. hardware failure
C. fraudulent manipulation of data
D. All of the above

Ans. D

Question 27
Updating a database means

A. revising a file structure
B. reorganizing the database
C. modifying or adding records
D. all of the above

Ans. D


Question 28
Firmware means


A. software
B. hardware
C. software available on hardware
D. None of these

Ans. C

Question 29
For each instructions of program in memory the CPU goes through a


A. decode - fetch - execute sequence
B. execute - store - decode sequence
C. fetch - decode - execute sequence
D. fetch - execute - decode sequence


Ans. C

Question 30
Which of the following is the ascending order of data hierarchy


A. bit - byte - record - field - data base - file
B. bit - byte - field - record - file - database
C. bit - byte - file - field - record - database
D. bit - record - byte - field - file - database

Ans. B

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Essar Placement Papers - Interview Questions 2015

Placement papers of Essar 2015. Learn and practice the placement papers and interview questions answers of Essar and find out how much you score before you appear for your next interview and written test.

Essar Placement Papers - Interview Questions:

Question 1
The fourth proportional to 5, 8, 15 is:

A. 18
B. 24
C. 19
D. 20

Ans. B

Explanation:
Let the fourth proportional to 5, 8, 15 be x. Then, 5 : 8 : 15 : x 5x = (8 x 15) x=(8*15)/5=24

Question 2
If 40% of a number is equal to two-third of another number, what is the ratio of first number to the second number?
A. 2 : 5
B. 3 : 7
C. 5 : 3
D. 7 : 3

Ans. C

Explanation:
Let 40% of A=2/3 B Then,40 A/100=2B/3 => 2A/5=2B/3 => A/B-[2/3 - 5/2]=5/3p A : B = 5 : 3.

Question 3
The salaries A, B, C are in the ratio 2 : 3 : 5. If the increments of 15%, 10% and 20% are allowed respectively in their salaries, then what will be new ratio of their salaries?


A. 3 : 3 : 10
B. 10 : 11 : 20
C. 23:33:60
D. 32 :43:53


Ans. C

Explanation:
Let A = 2k, B = 3k and C = 5k. A's new salary = 115/ 100 of 2k =[115/ 100 x 2k]= 23k/ 10 B's new salary = 110/ 100 of 3k = [110/ 100x 3k] = 33k/ 10 C's new salary = 120/ 100 of 5k = [120/ 100 x 5k] = 6k New ratio = 23k : 33k : 6k = 23 : 33 : 60

Question 4
A bag contains 6 black and 8 white balls. One ball is drawn at random. What is the probability that the ball drawn is white?

A. 3/4
B. 4/7
C. 1/8
D. 3/7

Ans. B

Explanation:
Let number of balls = (6 + 8) = 14. Number of white balls = 8. P (drawing a white ball)=8/14=4/7

Question 5
One card is drawn at random from a pack of 52 cards. What is the probability that the card drawn is a face card?

A. 1/13
B. 3/13
C. 1/4
D. 9/5

Ans. B

Explanation:
Clearly, there are 52 cards, out of which there are 12 face cards. P (getting a face card)=12/52=3/13

Question 6
Two cards are drawn together from a pack of 52 cards. The probability that one is a spade and one is a heart, is:


A. 3 /20
B. 29/ 34
C. 47/ 100
D. 13 /102


Ans. D

Explanation:
Let S be the sample space. Then, n(S) = 52C2 = 52 * 51/ (2*1)= 1326. Let E = event of getting 1 spade and 1 heart. n(E) = number of ways of choosing 1 spade out of 13 and 1 heart out of 13 = (13C1 x 13C1) = (13 x 13) = 169. P(E) =n (E)/n(S) = 169/ 1326= 13/102

Question 7
A bag contains 4 white, 5 red and 6 blue balls. Three balls are drawn at random from the bag. The probability that all of them are red, is:

A. 1/ 22
B. 3/ 22
C. 2/ 91
D. 2/ 81

Ans. C

Explanation:
Let S be the sample space. Then, n(S)= number of ways of drawing 3 balls out of 15 = 15C3 = (15 x 14 x 13)/ (3 x 2 x 1) = 455. Let E = event of getting all the 3 red balls. n(E) = 5C3 = 5C2 = (5 x 4)/ (2 x 1)= 10. P(E) = n(E) / n(S)= 10/ 455 = 2/ 91

Question 8
A card is drawn from a pack of 52 cards. The probability of getting a queen of club or a king of heart is:

A. 1 /13
B. 2 /13
C. 1 /26
D. 1 /52


Ans. C

Explanation:
Here, n(S) = 52. Let E = event of getting a queen of club or a king of heart. Then, n(E) = 2. P(E) =n(E)/ n(S)= 2/ 52= 1/ 26

Question 9
Two number are in the ratio 3 : 5. If 9 is subtracted from each, the new numbers are in the ratio 12 : 23. The smaller number is:

A. 27
B. 33
C. 49
D. 55

Ans. B

 Explanation:
Let the numbers be 3x and 5x. Then ,(3x-9)/(5x-9)=12/13 23(3x - 9) = 12(5x - 9) 9x = 99 x = 11. The smaller number = (3 x 11) = 33.

Question 10
In a bag, there are coins of 25 p, 10 p and 5 p in the ratio of 1 : 2 : 3. If there is Rs. 30 in all, how many 5 p coins are there?

A. 50
B. 100
C. 150
D. 200

Ans. C

Explanation:
Let the number of 25 p, 10 p and 5 p coins be x, 2x, 3x respectively. Then, sum of their values=Rs[(25x/100)+(10*2x)/100+(5*3x)/100]=Rs 60x/100 60x/100=30 =>x=(30*100)/60=50 Hence, the number of 5 p coins = (3 x 50) = 150.


You can also see: MTNL Placement Papers

Question 11
B2CD, _____, BCD4, B5CD, BC6D


A. B2C2D
B. BC3D
C. B2C3D
D. BCD7


Ans. B

Explanation:
Because the letters are the same, concentrate on the number series, which is a simple 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 series, and follows each letter in order.

Question 12
DEF, DEF2, DE2F2, _____, D2E2F3


A. DEF3
B. D3EF3
C. D2E3F
D. D2E2F2


Ans. D

Explanation:
In this series, the letters remain the same: DEF. The subscript numbers follow this series: 111, 112, 122, 222, 223, 233, 333, ...

Question 13
10 women can complete a work in 7 days and 10 children take 14 days to complete the work. How many days will 5 women and 10 children take to complete the work?


A. 3
B. 5
C. 7
D. Cannot be determined

Ans. C

Explanation:
1 woman's 1 day's work=1/70 1 child's 1 day's work =1/140 (5 women + 10 children)'s day's work =5/70 +10/140=1/14 +1/14=1/7 5 women and 10 children will complete the work in 7 days.

Question 14
A alone can do a piece of work in 6 days and B alone in 8 days. A and B undertook to do it for Rs. 3200. With the help of C, they completed the work in 3 days. How much is to be paid to C?


A. Rs. 375
B. Rs. 400
C. Rs. 600
D. Rs. 800



Ans. B

Explanation:
C's 1 day's work = 1/3 - [1/6 + 1/8]= 1/3 - 7/24= 1/24 A's wages : B's wages : C's wages = 1/6: 1/8: 1/24= 4 : 3 : 1. C's share (for 3 days) = Rs.[3 x 1/24 x 3200] = Rs. 400.

Question 15
The product of two numbers is 9375 and the quotient, when the larger one is divided by the smaller, is 15. The sum of the numbers is:


A. 380
B. 395
C. 400
D. 425


Ans. C

Explanation:
Let the numbers be x and y. Then, xy = 9375 and x/y=15 Xy/(x/y)=9375/15 y2 = 625. y = 25. x = 15y = (15 x 25) = 375. Sum of the numbers = x + y = 375 + 25 = 400.

Question 16
The length of a rectangle is halved, while its breadth is tripled. What is the percentage change in area?


A. 25% increase
B. 50% increase
C. 50% decrease
D. 75% decrease


Ans. B

Explanation:
Let original length = x and original breadth = y. Original area = xy. New length =x/2 New breadth = 3y. New area=[(x/2)*3y]=(3/2)xy Increase % =[(1/2)xy*(1/xy)*100]%=50%

Question 17
The difference between the length and breadth of a rectangle is 23 m. If its perimeter is 206 m, then its area is:

A. 1520 m2
B. 2420 m2
C. 2480 m2
D. 2520 m2

Ans. D

Explanation:
We have: (l - b) = 23 and 2(l + b) = 206 or (l + b) = 103. Solving the two equations, we get: l = 63 and b = 40. Area = (l x b) = (63 x 40) m2 = 2520 m2.

Question 18
In a certain school, 20% of students are below 8 years of age. The number of students above 8 years of age is 2/3 of the number of students of 8 years age which is 48. What is the total number of students in the school?


A. 72
B. 80
C. 120
D. 100

Ans. D

Question 19
Point out the error in the program?

#include
int main()
{
struct emp
{
char name[20];
float sal;
};
struct emp e[10];
int i;
for(i=0; i<=9; i++)
scanf("%s %f", e[i].name, &e[i].sal);
return 0;
}


A. Error: invalid structure member
B. Error: Floating point formats not linked
C. No error
D. None of above


Ans. B

Explanation:
At run time it will show an error then program will be terminated. Sample output: Turbo C (Windwos) Sample 12.123 scanf : floating point formats not linked Abnormal program termination

Question 20
Point out the error in the program?

#include
int main()
{
struct emp
{
char name[20];
float sal;
};
struct emp e[10];
int i;
for(i=0; i<=9; i++)
scanf("%s %f", e[i].name, &e[i].sal);
return 0;
}

A. Error: invalid structure member
B. Error: Floating point formats not linked
C. No error
D. None of above

Ans. B

Explanation:
At run time it will show an error then program will be terminated. Sample output: Turbo C (Windwos) c:\>myprogram Sample 12.123 scanf : floating point formats not linked Abnormal program termination


You can also see: Novell Placement Papers

Question 21
What will be the output of the program ?

#include
int main()
{
char p[] = "%d\n";
p[1] = 'c';
printf(p, 65);
return 0;
}

A. A
B. a
C. c
D. 65



Ans. A

Explanation:
Step 1: char p[] = "%d\n"; The variable p is declared as an array of characters and initialized with string "%d" Step 2: p[1] = 'c'; Here, we overwrite the second element of array p by 'c'. So array p becomes "%c". Step 3: printf(p, 65); becomes printf("%c", 65); Therefore it prints the ASCII value of 65. The output is 'A'.

Question 22
What will be the output of the program ?

#include
#include
int main()
{
char str1[20] = "Hello", str2[20] = " World";
printf("%s\n", strcpy(str2, strcat(str1, str2)));
return 0;
}


A. Hello
B. World
C. Hello World
D. WorldHello



Ans. C

 Explanation:
Step 1: char str1[20] = "Hello", str2[20] = " World"; The variable str1and str2 is declared as an array of characters and initialized with value "Hello" and " World" respectively. Step 2: printf("%s\n", strcpy(str2, strcat(str1, str2))); => strcat(str1, str2)) it append the string str2 to str1. The result will be stored in str1. Therefore str1 contains "Hello World". => strcpy(str2, "Hello World") it copies the "Hello World" to the variablestr2. Hence it prints "Hello World".

Question 23
Point out the error in the program

#include
int main()
{
int i;
#if A
printf("Enter any number:");
scanf("%d", &i);
#elif B
printf("The number is odd");
return 0;
}


A. Error: unexpected end of file because there is no matching #endif
B. The number is odd
C. Garbage values
D. None of above

Ans. A

Explanation:
The conditional macro #if must have an #endif. In this program there is no#endif statement written.

Question 24
Point out the error in the program

#include
#define SI(p, n, r) float si; si=p*n*r/100;
int main()
{
float p=2500, r=3.5;
int n=3;
SI(p, n, r);
SI(1500, 2, 2.5);
return 0;
}


A. 26250.00 7500.00
B. Nothing will print
C. Error: Multiple declaration of si
D. Garbage values

Ans. C

Explanation:
The macro #define SI(p, n, r) float si; si=p*n*r/100; contains the error. To remove this error, we have to modify this macro to #define SI(p,n,r) p*n*r/100


Question 25
What will be the output of the program?

#include
int main()
{
float d=2.25;
printf("%e,", d);
printf("%f,", d);
printf("%g,", d);
printf("%lf", d);
return 0;
}


A. 2.2, 2.50, 2.50, 2.5
B. 2.2e, 2.25f, 2.00, 2.25
C. 2.250000e+000, 2.250000, 2.25, 2.250000
D. error



Ans. C

Explanation:
printf("%e,", d); Here '%e' specifies the "Scientific Notation" format. So, it prints the 2.25 as 2.250000e+000. printf("%f,", d); Here '%f' specifies the "Decimal Floating Point" format. So, it prints the 2.25 as 2.250000. printf("%g,", d); Here '%g' "Use the shorter of %e or %f". So, it prints the 2.25 as 2.25. printf("%lf,", d); Here '%lf' specifies the "Long Double" format. So, it prints the 2.25 as 2.250000.

Question 26
What will be the output of the program?

#include
#include
int main()
{
float n=1.54;
printf("%f, %f\n", ceil(n), floor(n));
return 0;
}

A. 2.000000, 1.000000
B. 1.500000, 1.500000
C. 1.550000, 2.000000
D. 1.000000, 2.000000


Ans. A

Explanation:
ceil(x) round up the given value. It finds the smallest integer not < x. floor(x) round down the given value. It finds the smallest integer not > x. printf("%f, %f\n", ceil(n), floor(n)); In this line ceil(1.54) round up the 1.54 to 2 and floor(1.54) round down the 1.54 to 1. In the printf("%f, %f\n", ceil(n), floor(n)); statement, the format specifier "%f %f" tells output to be float value. Hence it prints 2.000000 and 1.000000.

Question 27
What will be the output of the program?

#include
int main()
{
float a=0.7;
if(a < 0.7f)
printf("C\n");
else
printf("C++\n");
return 0;
}


A. C
B. C++
C. Compiler error
D. Non of above



Ans. B

Explanation:
if(a < 0.7f) here a is a float variable and 0.7f is a float constant. The float variable a is not less than 0.7f float constant. But both are equal. Hence the ifcondition is failed and it goes to else it prints 'C++'


Question 28
What will be the output of the program?

#include
int main()
{
float f=43.20;
printf("%e, ", f);
printf("%f, ", f);
printf("%g", f);
return 0;
}


A. 4.320000e+01, 43.200001, 43.2
B. 4.3, 43.22, 43.21
C. 4.3e, 43.20f, 43.00
D. Error

Ans. A

Explanation:
printf("%e, ", f); Here '%e' specifies the "Scientific Notation" format. So, it prints the 43.20 as 4.320000e+01. printf("%f, ", f); Here '%f' specifies the "Decimal Floating Point" format. So, it prints the 43.20 as 43.200001. printf("%g, ", f); Here '%g' "Use the shorter of %e or %f". So, it prints the 43.20 as 43.2.

Question 29
If the size of an integer is 4 bytes, What will be the output of the program ?

#include
#include
int main()
{
printf("%d\n", strlen("123456"));
return 0;
}


A. 6
B. 12
C. 7
D. 2



Ans. A

Explanation:
The function strlen returns the number of characters int the given string. Therefore, strlen("123456") contains 6 characters. The output of the program is "6".

Question 30
What will be the output of the program ?

#include
int main()
{
int arr[5], i=0;
while(i<5)
arr[i]=++i;
for(i=0; i<5; i++)
printf("%d, ", arr[i]);
return 0;
}


A. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5,
B. Garbage value, 1, 2, 3, 4,
C. 0, 1, 2, 3, 4,
D. 2, 3, 4, 5, 6,

Ans. B


Explanation:
Since C is a compiler dependent language, it may give different outputs at different platforms. We have given the TurboC Compiler (Windows) output. Please try the above programs in Windows (Turbo-C Compiler) and Linux (GCC Compiler), you will understand the difference better.

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Hexaware Placement Papers - Interview Questions 2015

Placement papers of Hexaware 2015. Learn and practice the placement papers and interview questions answers of Hexaware and find out how much you score before you appear for your next interview and written test.

Hexaware Placement Papers - Interview Questions:

Question 1
Pick out the most effective word(s) from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
Pakistan lost a ...... wicket just when they seemed to be doing so well, and that led to their eventual defeat.


A. critical
B. crucial
C. sensitive
D. providential


Ans. B

Question 2
Sita's heart ...... at the sight of the beautiful diamond necklace


A. leapt
B. stopped
C. slowed
D. ran


Ans. A

Question 3
He is a person of sound character and ...... disposition

A. beneficent
B. morous
C. amiable
D. amicable


Ans. C

Question 4
Directions (4-8) In questions below, each passage consist of six sentences. The first and sixth sentence are given in the beginning. The middle four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labelled as P, Q, R and S. Find out the proper order for the four sentences. S1: The cooperative system of doing business is a good way of encouraging ordinary workers to work hard. P : If the society is to be well run, it is necessary to prevent insincere officials being elected to the committee which is responsible for the running of business. Q : They get this from experienced and professional workers who are not only familiar with the cooperative system, but also with efficient method of doing business. R : To a large extent, many cooperative societies need advice and guidance. S : The capital necessary to start a business venture is obtained by the workers contributions. S6: The main object is to maintain the interest of every member of the society and to ensure that the members participate actively in the projects of society. The Proper sequence should be:


A. SQPR
B. PQSR
C. SRQP
D. PSRQ

Ans. A

Question 5
S1: Ants eat worms, centipedes and spiders.

P : They are usually much quicker than the ant itself.

Q : Nevertheless, these animals do not make easy game for ants.

R : Besides, they have an extraordinary number of ways of escaping.

S : They also eat larvae and insect adults such as flies, moths and spring tails.

S6: Some jump, and some give out a pungent repellent substance.

The Proper sequence should be:

A. SQPR
B. SPRQ
C. SQRP
D. SRQP


Ans. D

Question 6
S1: Hungary, with a population of about 10 million, lies between Czechoslovakia to the north and Yugoslavia to the south.

P : Here a great deal of grain is grown.

Q : In recent years, however, progress has been made also in the field of industrialisation.

R : Most of this country consists of an extremely fertile plain, through which the river Danube flows.

S : In addition to grain, the plain produces potatoes, sugar, wine and livestock.

S6: The new industries derive mainly from agricultural production.

The Proper sequence should be:


A. QRSP
B. RPSQ
C. PRSQ
D. RQSP



Ans. B

Question 7
RARELY

A. Hardly
B. Definately
C. Frequently
D. Periodically


Ans. D

Question 8
In the following the questions choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the given word.
PRESTIGE


A. Influence
B. Quality
C. Name
D. Wealth

Ans. C

Question 9
Each question consist of two words which have a certain relationship to each other followed by four pairs of related words, Select the pair which has the same relationship.
FILTER:WATER


A. curtail: activity
B. expunge:book
C. edit:text
D. censor:play


Ans. D

Question 10
He lives near a lovely ...... of countryside
A. length
B. piece
C. section
D. stretch

Ans. D

You can also see: Essar Placement Papers

Question 11
If I take a state roadways bus, I'll get late, ...... ?

A. isn't it
B. won't I
C. will I
D. is it


Ans. B

Question 12
S1: A gentleman who lived alone always had two plates placed on the table at dinner time.

P : One day just as he sat down to dine, the cat rushed in to the room.

Q : One plate was for himself and other was for his cat.

R : She drooped a mouse into her own plate and another into her master plate.

S : He used to give the cat a piece of meat from his own plate.

S6: In this way the cat showed her gratitude to her master.

The Proper sequence should be:


A. QSPR
B. PSRQ
C. QRSP
D. RPQS

Ans. A


Question 13
S1: Satyajit Ray made several films for children.

P : Later film makers have followed his lead.

Q : Today other nations are making the children's film in a big way.

R : This was at a time when no director considered children as potential audience.

S : Ray was, thus, a pioneer in the field.

S6: But today few think of Ray as a maker of children's films.

The Proper sequence should be:


A. PSRQ
B. RSQP
C. RSPQ
D. SQRP

Ans. C

Question 14
In the following questions choose the word which is the exact OPPOSITE of the given words.
VANITY

A. Pride
B. Humility
C. Conceit
D. Ostentious

Ans. B

Question 15
MALICIOUS

A. Kind
B. Boastful
C. Generous
D. Indifferent

Ans. A

Question 16
STRINGENT


A. Tense
B. Stringly
C. Strict
D. Causing to Shrink

Ans. C

Question 17
CORPOREAL:SPIRITUAL


A. mesa:plateau
B. moron:savant
C. foreigner:immigrant
D. pedagogue:teacher

Ans. B

Question 18
In one hour, a boat goes 11 km/hr along the stream and 5 km/hr against the stream. The speed of the boat in still water (in km/hr) is:


A. 3 km/hr
B. 5 km/hr
C. 8 km/hr
D. 9 km/hr


Ans. C

Explanation:
Speed in still water = 1/2= (11 + 5) kmph = 8 kmph.

Question 19
A fruit seller had some apples. He sells 40% apples and still has 420 apples. Originally, he had:


A. 588 apples
B. 600 apples
C. 672 apples
D. 700 apples


Ans. D

Explanation:
Suppose originally he had x apples. Then, (100 - 40)% of x = 420. 60/100 * x = 420, x = (420 * 100/60) = 700

Question 20
In a lottery, there are 10 prizes and 25 blanks. A lottery is drawn at random. What is the probability of getting a prize?


A. 1/10
B. 2/5
C. 2/7
D. 5/7

Ans. C


You can also see: MTNL Placement Papers

Question 21
A box contains 2 white balls, 3 black balls and 4 red balls. In how many ways can 3 balls be drawn from the box, if at least one black ball is to be included in the draw?


A. 32
B. 48
C. 64
D. 96


Ans. C

Question 22
Look at this series: 22, 21, 23, 22, 24, 23, ... What number should come next?


A. 22
B. 24
C. 25
D. 26


Ans. C

Explanation:
In this simple alternating subtraction and addition series; 1 is subtracted, then 2 is added, and so on.


Question 23
void start()

{
A a = new A();
B b = new B();
a.s(b);
b = null; /* Line 5 */
a = null; /* Line 6 */
System.out.println("start completed"); /* Line 7 */}
When is the B object, created in line 3, eligible for garbage collection?


A. after line 5
B. after line 6
C. after line 7
D. There is no way to be absolutely certain.

Ans. D

Explanation:
Option D is correct. I think there are too many unknowns about the method s and the classes A and B to be able to answer this question with any certainty.

Question 24
When 1100010 is divided by 0101, what will be the decimal remainder?

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 6

Ans. B

Question 25
Databases overall structure is maintained in a file called


A. Redolog file
B. Data file
C. Control file
D. All of the above.

Ans. C


Question 26
Which of the following is not the required condition for binary search algorithm?


A. The list must be sorted
B. there should be the direct access to the middle element in any sublist
C. There must be mechanism to delete and/or insert elements in list
D. None of above

Ans. C

Question 27
#include
main()
{
struct xx
{
int x=3;
char name[]="hello";
};
struct xx *s=malloc(sizeof(struct xx));
printf("%d",s->x);
printf("%s",s->name);
}

A. Compiler error
B. hello
C. 3
D. none


Ans. A

Explanation:
Compiler Error ,Initialization should not be done for structure members inside the structure declaration

Question 28
Which of the following command is used to display the directory attributes rather than its contents ?


A. 1s-1-d
B. Is-x
C. Is-1
D. is-F


Ans. A


Question 29
The SQL WHERE clause:


A. limits the column data that are returned.
B. limits the row data are returned.
C. Both A and B are correct.
D. Neither A nor B are correct.


Ans. B

Question 30
Which of the following is not considered to be a basic element of an enterprise-class database system?


A. Users
B. Database applications
C. DBMS
D. COBOL programs


Ans. D

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Cummins Placement Papers - Interview Questions 2015

Placement papers of Cummins 2015. Learn and practice the placement papers and interview questions answers of Cummins and find out how much you score before you appear for your next interview and written test.

Cummins Placement Papers - Interview Questions:

Question 1
An SCR is a device having


A. Three layers with four junctions
B. Three layers with two junctions
C. Four layers with three junctions
D. Two layers with three junctions


Ans. C

Question 2
The amplifier is which current is proportional to the signal voltage, independent of source load resistance is called


A. Current Amplifier
B. Voltage Amplifier
C. Transresistance amplifier
D. Transconductance amplifier

Ans. C

Question 3
The VSWR of a transmission line is 4, its reflection coefficient is


A. 0.4
B. 0.6
C. 2
D. 4

Ans. B

Question 4
To increase the input resistance and decrease the output resistance in negative feedback, the type used is


A. Voltage Shunt
B. Current Series
C. Voltage Series
D. Current Shunt

Ans. B

Question 5
In an RL circuit after a very long time of application of step voltage the inductance L is represented in its equivalent circuit as


A. Open Circuit
B. Short Circuit
C. L / 2
D. 2L

Ans. B

Question 6
By passing a triangular wave through a differentiating circuit the output wave shape is


A. Spikes
B. Squarewave
C. Sawtooth
D. Sinewave

Ans. A

Question 7
Clipper circuits are used to obtain any one of the following waveforms


A. Sharper
B. Rectified
C. Fast Rising
D. Smaller Amplitude

Ans. D

Question 8
What frequency range is the High Frequency band?


A. 100 kHz
B. 1 GHz
C. 30 to 300 MHz
D. 3 to 30 MHz


Ans. B

Question 9
The most economical way of going from City A to City B, in terms of toll and distance is to use the


A. bridge
B. tunnel
C. toll free highway
D. bridge and highway

Ans. B

Question 10
Fill in the blank with the appropriate word. _______ the Depression, individual stock ownership was common in the United States.


A. It was during
B. By the time of
C. Because
D. none of these


Ans. B

You can also see: Hexaware Placement Papers


Question 11
It is not yet clearly understood _________ cause obesity.

A. why eating too many hamburgers can
B. why can eating too many hamburgers
C. eating too many hamburgers can
D. none of these

Ans. A

Question 12
Which of the following is the Antonym of "Admonish"


A. Bless
B. Praise
C. Congratulate
D. None of the above

Ans. A

Question 13
The Eiffel Tower is ________ the Leaning Tower of Pisa.
A. as popular a tourist attraction than
B. as popular a tourist attraction as
C. as more popular a tourist attraction as
D. none of these


Ans. B

Question 14
For each of the following syllogisms, decide whether it is valid. If not, determine which rule it violates.
All M is P
No S are M
Therefore, No S is P
This syllogism is:


A. Invalid, the middle term is not distributed in at least one premise.
B. Invalid, a term is distributed in the conclusion, but is not distributed in the premise in which it occurs.
C. Invalid, the premises are both negative.
D. Invalid, one premise is negative, but the conclusion isn't negative, or the conclusion is negative, but one premise isn't negative.

Ans. B


Question 15
A MNEMONIC is to MEMORIZATION as a _______ is to _______.
A. ANESTHETIC : FEELING
B. NEPHROLITH : DIGESTION
C. DIURETIC : URINATION
D. SCOTOMA : VISUALIZATION


Ans. B

Explanation:
A mnemonic is a pattern or other device that aids in memory, just as a diuretic is a substance that aids in urination. A nephrolith is a kidney stone, and has nothing to do with digestion. If anything, a scotoma, which is a blind spot or partial loss of vision, deprives a person of proper visualization, and of course an anesthetic is a substance used to remove feeling in a patient.

Question 16
If the bandwidth of each R F amplifier is 80 KHz the bandwidth of three such stages cascaded is


A. 800 KHz
B. 2400 KHz
C. 400 KHz
D. 200 KHz

Ans. B

Question 17
A network with impedance function 10(s + 1) / s(s + 2) could be realised using


A. Resistors only
B. Inductors and Capacitors only
C. Resistors and Capacitors only
D. Resistors, Inductors and Capacitors


Ans. D

Question 18
In Bipolar Junction transistors, the type of configuration which will give both voltage gain and current gain is

A. CC
B. CB
C. CE
D. None

Ans. C

Question 19
The value of a resistor creating thermal noise is doubled. The noise power generator is therefore.


A. Halved
B. Quadrupled
C. Doubled
D. Unchanged


Ans. D

Question 20
The reflection coefficient on a lossless line with a short circuit load, is given by


A. -1
B. 0
C. 1
D. Lamda


Ans. A

You can also see: Essar Placement Papers

Question 21
In FET amplifiers, input is


A. A current signal
B. A voltage signal
C. Either a current or voltage signal
D. None of these

Ans. B


Question 22
For different loads the range of the values for VSWR is


A. 0 to 0.5
B. 0.5 to 1
C. 0 to 1
D. 1 to Infinity


Ans. D


Question 23
Read the following information given below and answer the questions that follow:
For a motorist there are three ways going from City A to City C. By way of bridge the distance is 20 miles and toll is $0.75. A tunnel between the two cities is a distance of 10 miles and toll is $1.00 for the vehicle and driver and $0.10 for each passenger. A two-lane highway without toll goes east for 30 miles to city B and then 20 miles in a northwest direction to City C.
Which is the shortest route from B to C


A. Directly on toll free highway to City C
B. The bridge
C. The Tunnel
D. The bridge or the tunnel

Ans. A

Question 24
Jim usually drives alone from City C to City A every working day. His firm deducts a percentage of employee pay for lateness. Which factor would most influence his choice of the bridge or the tunnel ?

A. Whether his wife goes with him
B. scenic beauty on the route
C. Traffic conditions on the road, bridge and tunnel
D. saving $0.25 in tolls

Ans. A

Question 25
Never before _____ as rapidly, as during the last three decades.

A. communications have developed
B. have communications developed
C. have developed communications
D. none of these


Ans. B

Question 26
A cylindrical container has a radius of eight inches with a height of three inches. Compute how many inches should be added to either the radius or height to give the same increase in volume?


A. 5
B. 5.33
C. 5.8
D. none of these

Ans. B

Explanation:
Let x be the amount of increase. The volume will increase by the same amount if the radius increased or the height is increased. So, the effect on increasing height is equal to the effect on increasing the radius. i.e., (22/7)*8*8*(3+x) = (22/7)*(8+x)*(8+x)*3 Solving the quadratic equation we get the x = 0 or 16/3. The possible increase would be by 16/3 inches.

Question 27
Which of the following is the Antonym of "Predilection"


A. Attraction
B. Dislike
C. Choice
D. none of the above


Ans. B

Question 28
Five years ago the average age of a family of 3 members was 27 years. A child has Been born, due to which the average age of the family is 25 years today. What is the Present age of the child?

A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 8

Ans. A

Explanation:
Average age of 3 members in family = 3* 27 After 5 years average of 3 members = 3* 27 +15 Average age of 4 members in family = 4 *25 Present age of child = 4 * 25 - ( 3 * 27 +15) =4


Question 29
Some M are not P         All M are S             Therefore, some S are not P
This syllogism is:


A. Valid.
B. Invalid, the middle term is not distributed in at least one premise.
C. Invalid, a term is distributed in the conclusion, but is not distributed in the premise in which it occurs
D. Invalid, the premises are both negative.


Ans. A

Question 30
A SACKBUT is to a TROMBONE as a _______ is to a _______.


A. CHALUMEAU : CLARINET
B. HELICON : TUBA
C. CORNET : TRUMPET
D. BASSOON : OBOE

Ans. A

Explanation:
Much as a sackbut was an early form of the trombone, used during Renaissance times, the chalumeau was a precursor to the clarinet. A cornet is a currently employed instrument that is very similar to the trumpet, and a helicon is a type of tuba which encircles the instrumentalist's head. Bassoons and oboes are both double-reeded woodwind instruments of the same family.

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Freescale Placement Papers - Interview Questions 2015

Placement papers of Freescale 2015. Learn and practice the placement papers and interview questions answers of Freescale and find out how much you score before you appear for your next interview and written test.

Freescale Placement Papers - Interview Questions:

Directions (1-7):Study the following arrangement and answer the questions given below:

Question 1
R 4 T M 7 W % J 9 5 I # 1 P B 2 T A 3 D $ 6 E N F 8 U H @ How many such vowels are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a number and not immediately followed by a consonant?


A. None
B. One
C. Two
D. Three

Ans. B

Question 2
What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the above arrangement? TM% 951 B23 ?


A. $EF
B. $6F
C. D$N
D. $E8


Ans. B


Question 3
How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement, each of which is neither preceded by a number nor followed by a consonants


A. None
B. One
C. Two
D. More than three


Ans. D

Question 4
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so from a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

A. 5J1
B. 7TJ
C. 8N@
D. 32$


Ans. D


Question 5
Which of the following is sixth to the right of the fourteenth from the right end?


A. 5
B. 6
C. I
D. $


Ans. B

Question 6
How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately followed by a symbol but not immediately preceded by another consonant?


A. None
B. One
C. Two
D. Three


Ans. D

Question 7
Which of the following is the eighth to the left of the sixteenth from the left end?

A. J
B. E
C. %
D. 6


Ans. A


Question 8
For the following, find the next term in the series 6, 24, 60,120, 210


A. 336
B. 360
C. 330
D. 660


Ans. A

Explanation:
The series is 1.2.3, 2.3.4, 3.4.5, 4.5.6, 5.6.7, ..... ( '.' means product)


Question 9
1, 5, 13, 25


A. 33
B. 48
C. 41
D. 30


Ans. C

Explanation:
The series is of the form 0^2+1^2, 1^2+2^2,...

Question 10
0, 5, 8, 17

A. 22
B. 24
C. 25
D. 20


Ans. B

Explanation:
1^2-1, 2^2+1, 3^2-1, 4^2+1, 5^2-1

You can also see: Cummins Placement Papers

Question 11
A fast typist can type some matter in 2 hours and a slow typist can type the same in 3 hours. If both type combine, in how much time will they finish?

A. 2.15 hr
B. 1.12 hr
C. 1.23 hr
D. 1.45 hr


Ans. B

Explanation:
The fast typist's work done in 1 hr = 1/2 The slow typist's work done in 1 hr = 1/3 If they work combine , work done in 1 hr = 1/2+1/3 = 5/6 So, the work will be completed in 6/5 hours. i.e., 1+1/5 hours = 1hr 12 min

Question 12
Gavaskar's average in his first 50 innings was 50. After the 51st innings, his average was 51. How many runs did he score in his 51st innings. (supposing that he lost his wicket in his 51st innings)


A. 101
B. 105
C. 98
D. 112


Ans. A

Explanation:
Total score after 50 innings = 50*50 = 2500 Total score after 51 innings = 51*51 = 2601 So, runs made in the 51st innings = 2601-2500 = 101 If he had not lost his wicket in his 51st innings, he would have scored an unbeaten 50 in his 51st innings.

Question 13
Two trains running in opposite directions cross a man standing on the platform in 27 seconds and 17 seconds respectively and they cross each other in 23 seconds. The ratio of their speeds is:


A. 1 : 3
B. 3 : 2
C. 3 : 4
D. None of these


Ans. B

Question 14
What is the sum of all numbers between 100 and 1000 which are divisible by 14 ?


A. 35393
B. 35392
C. 35352
D. 35329


Ans. B

Explanation:
The number closest to 100 which is greater than 100 and divisible by 14 is 112, which is the first term of the series which has to be summed. The number closest to 1000 which is less than 1000 and divisible by 14 is 994, which is the last term of the series. 112 + 126 + .... + 994 = 14(8+9+ ... + 71) = 35392

Question 15
If time at this moment is 9 P.M., what will be the time 23999999992 hours later?


A. 12 am
B. 1 am
C. 1 pm
D. 12 pm


Ans. C

Explanation:
24 billion hours later, it would be 9 P.M. and 8 hours before that it would be 1 P.M.

Question 16
I drove 60 km at 30 kmph and then an additional 60 km at 50 kmph. Compute my average speed over my 120 km.

A. 37 ½ kmph
B. 40 kmph
C. 35 ½ kmph
D. 38 kmph



Ans. A

Explanation:
Time reqd for the first 60 km = 120 min.; Time reqd for the second 60 km = 72 min.; Total time reqd = 192 min Avg speed = (60*120)/192 = 37 1/2

Question 17
A can do a certain work in the same time in which B and C together can do it. If A and B together could do it in 10 days and C alone in 50 days, then B alone could do it in___ days.

A. 15 days
B. 20 days
C. 25 days
D. 30 days


Ans. C

Question 18
Two trains of equal length are running on parallel lines in the same direction at 46 km/hr and 36 km/hr. The faster train passes the slower train in 36 seconds. The length of each train is:

A. 50 m
B. 72 m
C. 80 m
D. 82 m


Ans. A


Question 19
The cost price of 20 articles is the same as the selling price of x articles. If the profit is 25%, then the value of x is:


A. 15
B. 16
C. 18
D. 25



Ans. B

Question 20
At a party, everyone shook hands with everybody else. There were 66 handshakes. How many people were at the party?


A. 11
B. 12
C. 10
D. 13


Ans. A

Explanation:
With two people, there is one handshake. With three people, there are three handshakes. With four people, there are six handshakes. In general, with n+1 people, the number of handshakes is the sum of the first n consecutive numbers: 1+2+3+...+n. Since this sum is n(n+1)/2, we need to solve the equation n(n+1)/2 = 66. This is the quadratic equation n2+n-132 = 0. Solving for n, we obtain 11 as the answer and deduce that there were 12 people at the party

You can also see: Hexaware Placement Papers

Question 22
The price of the book is marked 20% above the C.P. If the marked price of the book is Rs. 180, then what is the cost of the paper used in a single copy of the book?


A. Rs. 36
B. Rs. 37.50
C. Rs. 42
D. Rs. 44.25



Ans. B

Question 23
If 5500 copies are published and the transportation cost on them amounts to Rs. 82500, then what should be the selling price of the book so that the publisher can earn a profit of 25%?


A. Rs. 187.50
B. Rs. 191.50
C. Rs. 175
D. Rs. 180


Ans. A

Question 24
Royalty on the book is less than the printing cost by:


A. 5%
B. 33(1/5)%
C. 20%
D. 25%

Ans. D


Question 25
What is the central angle of the sector corresponding to the expenditure incurred on Royalty?


A. 15º
B. 24º
C. 54º
D. 48º



Ans. C

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Citi Placement Papers - Interview Questions 2015

Placement papers of Citi 2015. Learn and practice the placement papers and interview questions answers of Citi Bank and find out how much you score before you appear for your next interview and written test.

Citi Placement Papers - Interview Questions:

Question 1
What are the points in the stress strain curve for steel?

A. elastic limit or yield point
B. ultimate stress
C. stress at failure
D. all of these

Ans. D

Question 2
The ratio of inertial force and viscous force. It is a dimensionless number. It determines the type of fluid flow.

A. Reynolds number.
B. viscous force
C. torque
D. none of these

Ans. A

Question 3
How many joules is 1 BTU?


A. 1055.056 joules.
B. 1054 joules
C. 950 joules
D. none of these

Ans. A

Question 4
It is the temperature below which the tendency of a material to fracture increases rather than forming. Below this temperature the material loses its ductility


A. annealing
B. Nil Ductility
C. Ductile- brittle transition
D. Both B&C

Ans. D

Question 5
For a perfectly incompressible material, the Poisson's ratio would be

A. greater than 0.5
B. less than 0.0
C. equal to 0.1
D. none of these

Ans. D

Explanation:
Exactly 0.5. Most practical engineering materials have ν between 0.0 and 0.5. Cork is close to 0.0, most steels are around 0.3, and rubber is almost 0.5

Question 6
A man sells an article with a 20% discount and gain a profit of 20%.What would be the profit percentage if he sells it with 10% discount?

A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 35%
D. none of these

Ans. C

Explanation:
Let initial selling price be 100 Rs Cost price after 20% discount be 80* (100/120) = 200/3 Selling price after 10% discount is 90 Rs Profit = (90 - (200/3)) / (200/3) = 7/20 % profit = (7/20)* 100 = 35%

Question 7
a radioactive element disintegrates by 20 th part every hour and find the probability that no matter is left out in duration of 45 min?


A. e ^ (-15)
B. 15
C. e ^ (-20)
D. none of these

Ans. A

Explanation:
Since it deals with radioactive element 'n' is usually large. so poisons distribution is to be applieD. .. 1hr=60min----------20 45min----------? (45*20)/(60)=15.. Hence lambda=15 P(x=0) = (e-15)*(150)/ (0!) = (e-15)

Question 8
If side of the square is x+2 and side of equilateral triangle is 2x and the perimeters of both square and equilateral triangle are equal .Then find the value of x ?


A. 4
B. 6
C. 8
D. none of these

Ans. A

Explanation:
4*(x+2) = (3*2x) i.e.; x=4


Question 9
If side of the square of increased by 5 and change in area were 165 ,then find the value of side of the square ?


A. 16
B. 14
C. 18
D. none of these

Ans. B

Explanation:
x+5)2-x2=165 10x+25=165 10x=140 x=14

Question 10
A man has Rs. 480 in the denominations of one-rupee notes, five-rupee notes and ten-rupee notes. The number of notes of each denomination is equal. What is the total number of notes that he has ?


A. 45
B. 60
C. 75
D. 90

Ans. D

Explanation:
Let number of notes of each denomination be x. Then x + 5x + 10x = 480 16x = 480 x = 30. Hence, total number of notes = 3x = 3 x 30 = 90.

You can also see: Freescale Placement Papers

Question 11
One-third of Rahul's savings in National Savings Certificate is equal to one-half of his savings in Public Provident Fund. If he has Rs. 1, 50,000 as total savings, how much has he saved in Public Provident Fund ?


A. Rs. 30,000
B. Rs. 50,000
C. Rs. 60,000
D. Rs. 90,000

Ans. C

Explanation:
Let savings in N.S.C and P.P.F. be Rs. x and Rs. (150000 - x) respectively. Then, 1/3 x = (1/2) * (150000 - x) (x/3) + (x/2) = 75000 (5/6) x = 75000 X = 90000 Therefore Savings in Public Provident Fund = 150000 - 90000= Rs. 60000

Question 12
A man has some hens and cows. If the number of heads is 48 and the number of feet equals 140, then the number of hens will be:

A. 22
B. 23
C. 24
D. 26

Ans. D

Explanation:
Let the number of hens be x and the number of cows be y. Then, x + y = 48.... (i) and 2x + 4y = 140 x + 2y = 70.... (ii) Solving (i) and (ii) we get: x = 26, y = 22. The required answer = 26.


Question 13
X and Y can do a piece of work in 20 days and 12 days respectively. X started the work alone and then after 4 days Y joined him till the completion of the work. How long did the work last ?


A. 6 days
B. 10 days
C. 15 days
D. 20 days

Ans. B

Explanation:
Work done by X in 4 days (1/20) * 4 = 1/5 Remaining work = 1- (1/5) = 4/5 (X + Y)'s 1 day's work (1/20) + (1/20) = 8 / 60 = 2/ 15 Work done by X and Y in 1 day = 2/15 So, 4/5 work will be done by X and Y in (15/2)* (4/5) = 6 days Hence, total time taken = 6+ 4 = 10 days


Question 14
The difference between a two-digit number and the number obtained by interchanging the positions of its digits is 36. What is the difference between the two digits of that number ?

A. 3
B. 4
C. 9
D. cannot be determined


Ans. B

Explanation:
Let the ten's digit be x and unit's digit be y. Then, (10x + y) - (10y + x) = 36 9(x - y) = 36 x - y = 4.

Question 15
On dividing a number by 5, we get 3 as remainder. What will the remainder when the square of the number is divided by 5 ?


A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 4

Ans. D

Explanation:
Let the number be x and on dividing x by 5, we get k as quotient and 3 as remainder. x = 5k + 3 x2 = (5k + 3)2 = (25k2 + 30k + 9) = 5(5k2 + 6k + 1) + 4 On dividing x2 by 5, we get 4 as remainder.

Question 16
Sum of squares of two numbers is 404 and sum of two numbers is 22.Then product of two Numbers ?


A. 20
B. 40
C. 80
D. none of these

Ans. B

Explanation:
According to the given conditions x + y = 22 and x2 + y2 = 404 now (x + y)2 = x2 + y2 + 2xy so 222 = 404 + 2xy so xy = 80/2 = 40.


Question 17
If a>4, b<-1 then which of the following is true


A. 2a+b<0
B. 4a<3b
C. a>4b
D. none of these


Ans. C

Question 18
A student was performing an arithmetic operation and he multiplied a number by 3/2 instead of dividing it by 2/3 .what was its error percentage ?


A. 10%
B. 12%
C. 15%
D. none of these

Ans. D

Explanation:
(3/2) x - x/ (2/3) = 0 Therefore % error = 0%


Question 19
Saritha and kavitha are separated by a certain distance of 100m and saritha started from her house and walked for 30m East and turned right and walked up to 10m and then turned left and walked up to 20m and again turned left and walked to the road.
What is the distance between the two girls now ?


A. 52
B. 50
C. 51
D. 53

Ans. C


Question 20
What is distance between Saritha and kavitha after walking 10meter towards road ?


A. 52
B. 50
C. 51
D. none of these

Ans. B

You can also see: Cummins Placement Papers

Question 21
Ann is shorter than Jill and Jill is taller than Tom. Which of the following inferences is true.


A. Ann is taller than Tom.
B. Ann is shorter than tom.
C. Ann shortest among three.
D. None of these.


Ans. D

Question 22
Who is tallest among the three ?


A. Ann
B. Tom
C. Jill
D. Cannot be determined


Ans. C

Question 23
We entered (A)/into the room (B)/after the class was over(c)/No Error (D)


A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

Ans. B

Explanation:
We entered the room after the class was over.

Question 24
Your account should (A)/have been credited (B)/with three month's interest(C)/No error (D).

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D


Ans. D

Explanation:
There is no error in this sentence.

Question 25
Idli and sambar (A)/make the breakfast (B)/in the south(C)/ No error (D).


A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D


Ans. B

Explanation:
There is an error in fragment 2 of the sentence. The article 'the' has been incorrectly placed.

Question 26
We discussed (A)/about the politics (B)/ in the class room(C)/No Error (D).


A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

Ans. B

Explanation:
We discussed the politics in the class room.

Question 27
Arrange the sentence order(27-30) A. With the time spent eating, sleeping, taking care of household chores, and looking after the family, there is little time left for leisure activities for many American. B  Results of a 2001 Harris Poll on free time conducted in the United States showed that the average workweek for many Americans is fifty hours. C. People today seem to have increasingly hectic lifestyles. D  In addition, many people spend up to two or three hours a day commuting to and from work


A. ABCD
B. CBDA
C. ACBD
D. CADB

Ans. B

Question 28
A. The most popular activity for Americans was gardening. B.  We can see from the above examples tat in different countries and cultures around the world, free time is spend in different ways.
C. In the U.K., it was going to the pub, followed by visiting the cinema.
D. In Japan, it was very different from the first two countries. Going too bars and pubs ranked eighth in popularity, and gardening ranked ninth.
E  There were differences in the most popular outdoor pursuits between the following three countries.


A. EADCB
B. BEACD
C. EACDB
D. CEABD


Ans. C

Question 29
A. When identity is thus 'defined by contrast', divergence with the West becomes central. B. Indian religious literature such as the Bhagavad Gita or the Tantric texts, which are identified as differing from secular writings seen as 'western', elicits much greater interest in the West than do   other Indian writings, including India's long history of heterodoxy.
C. There is a similar neglect of Indian writing on non-religious subjects, from mathematics, epistemology and natural science to economics and linguistics.
D. Through selective emphasis that point up differences with the West, other civilizations can, in this way, be redefined in alien terms, which can be exotic and charming, or else bizarre and   terrifying, or simply strange and engaging.
E.  The exception is the Kamasutra in which western readers have managed to cultivate an interest.


A. BDACE
B. DEABC
C. BDECA
D. BCEDA


Ans. D

Explanation:
Comparing statements B and D for starters as per the options, statement B scores over statement D. BD versus BC (as per the options) - By several reading of the sentences it is possible to see that BC is mandatory or that statement C cannot be placed next to any other statement available except immediately after statement B because of its 'there is similar neglect. The neglect is mentioned only in statement B. BCED and BCDE would have been very difficult to decide. Fortunately we are not required to decide this, because BCED is the only choice. Statement A then falls automatically at the end of the paragraph. Hence, the correct answer is option D

Question 30
A. This is now orthodoxy to which I subscribe - up to a point. B. It emerged from the mathematics of chance and statistics.
C.Therefore the risk is measurable and manageable.
DThe fundamental concept: Prices are not predictable, but the mathematical laws of chance can describe their fluctuations.
E.This is how what business schools now call modern finance was born.


A. ADCBE
B. EBDCA
C. ABDCE
D. DCBEA

Ans. B

Explanation:
The best way to solve this one is not through the options. If you read the sentence several times there are two possibilities for the 'it' in statement B. The 'it' is either 'The fundamental concept' in D (i.e. BD) or 'modern finance' in E (i.e. EB). No other combination even as per the given options (CB and AB) would make sense if the 'it' is worked upon. BD is not in the options. Now, one has to merely check if EBDCA makes sense and there is no other option to compare with. Hence, the correct answer is option B

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